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Posted by: natsamjosh at Mon Dec 15 10:25:22 2008 [ Email Message ] [ Show All Posts by natsamjosh ] This is where I think things get confusing (well, at least for me.) I think the term "co-dominant" is used too loosely. Might some of these patterns be a result of incomplete dominance rather than co dominance? If so, can the "dominance" of one of the alleles be so strong that the phenotype of a het could be so close to one of the homozygous phenotypes that it's difficult to tell the difference???? The classic example used for incomplete dominance is crossing a red with a white flower, where the result is a pink flower... which is obviously distinguishable from a red or white flower. But is it always that clear cut?? Can one of the F1/het flower's alleles be, let's say, 95% dominant, resulting in a flower very similar to either the red or white phenotype? | ||
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