>I don't understand how that could work. If it is one locus, and it is recessive, is someone implying that there are other loci at the same locus which are codominant?
Short answer: Not other loci. More than two alleles at the same locus.
Dominant, codominant, and recessive all require a comparison. This can be specified or implied. When there are only two alleles, then the comparison is between the mutant and normal alleles. For example, in the ball python, the pied mutant gene is recessive to the normal allele. "The pied mutant gene is a recessive" is an implied comparison meaning the same thing because there are only two alleles.
If peanut butter and albino are alleles, then there are three possible comparisons: peanut butter vs normal, albino vs normal, and peanut butter vs albino. From what I've gathered, a snake with a peanut butter mutant gene paired with a normal allele looks normal; therefore, peanut butter is recessive to normal. A snake with an albino gene paired with a normal gene looks normal; therefore, albino is recessive to normal. The belief is that a snake with a peanut butter gene paired with an albino gene looks more or less intermediate between a homozygous peanut butter and a homozygous albino. This is why people are suggesting that peanut butter is codominant to albino.
Welcome to the wonderful world of multiple alleles.
>I would love to see a confirmed but unbiased pedigree so we could at least have a realistic chance of figuring it out.
So would I.
Paul Hollander