Reptile & Amphibian Forums

I have a question about the morphs that are co-dominant/dominant in ball pythons. I noticed that the female is usually more expensive. Wouldn't it make more sense if the male was more expensive? I mean the male can breed multiple females therefore making many times more the amount of morph offspring. Can anyone shed anylight on that?

there are more males for sale than females......people breed their snakes and dont need to hold on to the males since they already have an adult breeder animal....... they need to hold to some females so they can be raised for future breedings...so simple rules of supply and demand kick in..... more males price drop...... less females price is higher......hope that helped

Raul

Question .... If that is true then why are male spiders less expensive on NERD'S site then the girls?
NERD

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RicK @ BbI

Ball Boutique,Inc.
The home of the singing snakes!

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0.1 Royal Python
0.1 Bearded Dragon
1.0 African Grey (Parrot)
1.1 Love Birds
0.0.2 Gold Fish

You are right....Hard to listen @ TV and type!
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RicK @ BbI

Ball Boutique,Inc.
The home of the singing snakes!

Hypo/Ghost females....MORE money.
Albino females........same or MORE money.
Piebald females.......LESS money.
Why is that?
: )
Nick

No cool combos on the Pied's,so they are just using them to produce more Pieds. Lack of imagination I guess.

First off there two separate things. co-dominate co-dominate =super (as with pastels) there is a visual differance. Incompleat dominate Incompleat dominate = Dominate (as with spiders)but there is no visual differance. The better visual the more $$$$. Who said looks are'nt everything!

Spiders have not been proven in producing super spiders. No one knows yet. Perhaps a super spiders looks like a spider. If anyone knows for sure please post.
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RicK @ BbI

Ball Boutique,Inc.
The home of the singing snakes!

First off there two separate things. co-dominate co-dominate =super (as with pastels) there is a visual differance. Incompleat dominate Incompleat dominate = Dominate (as with spiders)but there is no visual differance. The better visual the more $$$$. Who said looks are'nt everything!

This is not correct. Incomplete dominance can be more closely related to codominance, while complete dominance shows no difference between a het and homozygous animal. If it is true that spiders show no difference, they are exhibiting COMPLETE dominance.
The difference between incomplete and codominance is a little trickier. Incomplete dominance is easier to understand, giving a blending of the two phenotypes. When genes are codominant, it's not blending exactly, but both specific phenotypes are seen in the same animal. An example is blood type. A and B are codominant to each other and dominant to O. This means that each cell produces A and B antigens, not a single blended version. Another way to think about it would be in reference to fur color. If black and white fur color of a species of animal exhibited incomplete dominance, each hair would be gray. If they were codominant, then there would be a mix of black and white hairs, giving an overall gray coloration.
I think a lot of people confuse the two, and codominant may not be the right term for a lot of morphs labeled as such...

>The difference between incomplete and codominance is a little trickier. Incomplete dominance is easier to understand, giving a blending of the two phenotypes. When genes are codominant, it's not blending exactly, but both specific phenotypes are seen in the same animal. An example is blood type. A and B are codominant to each other and dominant to O. This means that each cell produces A and B antigens, not a single blended version.

Unfortunately, this is not on the same scale. Blood typing is on a cellular or even molecular scale, while "blending of the two phenotypes" is on a whole animal scale. Looked at on the molecular scale, in both incomplete dominance and codominance the two genes do their own thing, producing a mixture of two gene products rather than blending the two into a single product.

Best definition distinguishing incomplete dominance from codominance I've seen is this: Incomplete dominance -- one allele produces a functional enzyme, and the other allele produces a nonfunctional enzyme.
Codominance -- Both alleles produce functional enzymes.

In both codominance and incomplete dominance, there are three phenotypes -- one for the first homozygote, one for the second homozygote, and one for the heterozygote. When we lack enzyme functionality information and just use phenotype information, incomplete dominance and codominance are synonyms.

Paul Hollander

It's a lot more complicated distinguishing between the two, especially when we don't know on a cellular level what's going on with the gene expression. I guess my point was more to say that complete dominance was incorrectly called incomplete. Then I thought I should try to explain what the term actually meant, but I'm not always so great at my explainations!

so the breeders are just keeping more of their own males and selling the females? That makes sense.

I think the breeders are keeping more of the co-dominant females (like pastels) in order to produce more supers and selling the males. With co-dominants everyone wants to produce the super and to do that you need females co-dominants and the more females the more supers.

With dominant there isn't as much incentive to produce homozygous since it wouldn't look any different (but would still be valuable for breeding). So with dominant (spider?) the females wouldn’t be as much in demand as with co-dominant.

That was what I was trying to say,with out beans and pink flowers