I'm always dismayed by self-proclaimed Christians who proudly state their opposition to gay marriage based solely upon their strongly held religious convictions. What is so disappointing to me is that their reason for their conviction is based not on the words of God but rather a thing that can best be summed up as the "Ick Factor". The Ick Factor is that feeling of revulsion that many heterosexuals experience when they envision homosexual acts and I do not see the need to detail this further. However I do want to examine the verse that I've seen written on several protest signs as well as in church articles decrying gay marriage, Leviticus 18:22. I copied it below along with the verses immediately around for a reason I will explain afterwards.
19 And thou shalt not approach unto a woman to uncover her nakedness, as long as she is impure by her uncleanness.
20 And thou shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbor's wife, to defile thyself with her.
21 And thou shalt not give any of thy seed to make them pass through the fire to Molech; neither shalt thou profane the name of thy God: I am Jehovah.
22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.
23 And thou shalt not lie with any beast to defile thyself therewith; neither shall any woman stand before a beast, to lie down thereto: it is confusion.
24 Defile not ye yourselves in any of these things: for in all these the nations are defiled which I cast out from before you;
25 And the land is defiled: therefore I do visit the iniquity thereof upon it, and the land vomiteth out her inhabitants.
Now honestly, I can't say that verse 22 has any hidden meaning other than what seems readily apparent - homosexual acts are wrong... until I look at the verses around it. All of the verses up to 20 state who is allowed for sexual relations, but 21 is a notable exception. It refers specifically to child sacrifice made to the Philistine god Molech and by mentioning fire it does not seem sexual in nature a.k.a pedophilia. So why is it inserted here unless pagan temple practices are the intent of this section? It is known that women copulated with sacred bulls in ancient Greece in observance of religious rites and that is possibly what verse 22-23 means to forbid. By extension, it is within reason to extrapolate that verse 22 could be an admonition against having sex with male temple prostitutes (pre-pubescent youths?) rather than an equal relationship between adults based upon real feelings. The transgression therefore has more to do with paying ritual homage to a false god than it does with having sex.
While I don't have the means to prove my assertion to be true beyond reproach, it makes logical sense in my opinion. "Ick Factor" aside, I can't really see how this verse can be used to bolster the Christian Right's position that gay marriage is evil. Ultimately, one can know in faith only what the Spirit reveals and in the absence of a booming voice from above speaking to the contrary, gay marriage is right course.
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